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atheistinpeace -> Use of scripture (5/11/2008 4:49:41 PM)
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I have a question about how Christians use scripture - very interested in views on this. Because this post is perhaps more of an explicit challenge than some of my other contributions, responses to this are particularly appreciated. My question concerns use of scripture. It's something I've been meaning to ask for a while, but a recent thread on having non-Christian friends, started by SoliderinGodsArmy, reminded me to raise this. (The thread is here: http://forums.christianity.com/m_3407215/mpage_1/key_/tm.htm). In his/her post, SoliderinGodsArmy cites scripture to support the case for not having Christian friends. The case itself was reasonable (though most respondents preferred the view that Christians can have non-Christian friends - which I found heartening). On the understanding that someone had granted the Bible creedence as the Word of God, then that someone could cite scripture for only having Christian friends, and use this to justify their actions (whether that justification is then accepted is dependent on 1) interpretation of scripture; and 2) acceptance of the Bible as God's word). What troubles me is how far this could be taken. To quote from the book of Deuteronomy, Ch 13, KJV: [6] If thy brother, the son of thy mother, or thy son, or thy daughter, or the wife of thy bosom, or thy friend, which is as thine own soul, entice thee secretly, saying, Let us go and serve other gods, which thou hast not known, thou, nor thy fathers; [7] Namely, of the gods of the people which are round about you, nigh unto thee, or far off from thee, from the one end of the earth even unto the other end of the earth; [8] Thou shalt not consent unto him, nor hearken unto him; neither shall thine eye pity him, neither shalt thou spare, neither shalt thou conceal him: [9] But thou shalt surely kill him; thine hand shall be first upon him to put him to death, and afterwards the hand of all the people. [10] And thou shalt stone him with stones, that he die; because he hath sought to thrust thee away from the LORD thy God, which brought thee out of the land of Egypt, from the house of bondage. Which I interpret to be an instruction to kill followers of other faiths, or of no faith. I know I'm not alone in this interpretation. An important qualifier - firstly, there is scripture that specifically instructs us not to kill; secondly, I don't recall ever seeing a news item in which this sort of passage is used to justify murder. (I couldn't say the same about some other religions.) And I feel fairly sanguine in saying that only a tiny, tiny minority Christians would ever consider following this instruction (every ideology/philosophy has their share of lunatics - my own philosophy by no means excepted). But my point is this - if scripture can be accepted, invoked and followed so as to lead to only having Christian friends (in addition to a range of uniequivocally good acts and thoughts), on what basis is the passage from Deuteronomy not followed? As said, particularly appreciate responses to this. Thanks. AiP
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