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RE: Remarriage After Divorce - One Stop Thread

 
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RE: Remarriage After Divorce - One Stop Thread - 7/20/2008 9:49:47 PM   
p.progress

 

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quote:

ORIGINAL: SealedEternal

quote:

ORIGINAL: DaveW

If they being 2000 years closer to Moses penning these words and native speakers of that language could not understand it, there is NO WAY for ANYONE today to come up with a meaning that would be authoritative.


So your claim is that God made a Law that was impossible to be understood, and then judged people who didn't follow it properly? I would contend that God is not the author of confusion, but it is the wicked hearts of men that prevent us from accepting what He says. In the same way we have countless professing Christian religions with virtually every imaginable contradicting doctrine, but I don't believe it is because God's Word is indiscernable, rather that people don't want to accept what it truly says, and try to make it say what they wish it said.

SealedEternal




I have to say here that though I don't know precisely where DaveW is 'coming from', I find that I can agree with him, at least in the point that I GET from his post; that in regard to the Deut 24 passage and what benelchi calls the 'construct' of the word 'devar ervat', I think I agree with what DaveW seems to be pointing out: That if they of Christ's time were in disgreement of its meaning, then where does that leave me or us?

My point being: And these are the scholars!

And it is for this reason and for other reasons as well, I have learned not to put too much stock in the interpretations of the scholars. Though I am thankful for the work of those 'scholars' which have translated the scriptures into my language; I am not so foolish - not enough anyway - to swallow the notion that their interpretations on the meaning of a passage or their claims about what scripture teaches about a subject is as equally objective and untainted by personal biases and/or even agendas. Not that I am impuning any scholar out there past or present. But by the very same scriptures that scholars have translated into my language, I have read and been instructed to NOT blindly follow and swallow what even such men claim interpretive wise regarding the meaning of a passage or swallow what they claim to be 'what God says' on a subject taught in the scriptures. Instead I use their translations, dictionaries and study helps (etc.), so that I can 'figure out' - or do my best to 'figure out' - what the meaning (INTERPRETATION) of the words are in a passage. And as I HARMONIZE them one passage TOGETHER with ALL THE OTHER passages throughout scripture that speaks on the same subject, it is then that I am able to in a number of areas of study, become confident of my findings - WITHOUT relying on the 'experts'.

Out of Time.

< Message edited by p.progress -- 7/21/2008 11:51:52 AM >
Post #: 9776
RE: Remarriage After Divorce - One Stop Thread - 7/21/2008 6:44:58 AM   
DaveW


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quote:

ORIGINAL: SealedEternal

So your claim is that God made a Law that was impossible to be understood, and then judged people who didn't follow it properly?
I have said nothing about God judging people who do not clearly understand His word. Indeed, IMO, He does not do that. God is not a tyrant or unfeeling computer that indiscriminately metes out puninshment. He is a loving and fair father. Hebrews speaks of his being touched by our weakness and empathising in our temptation. David wrote in the Psalms that He "...is mindful of our frame that we are but dust."
quote:

I would contend that God is not the author of confusion, but it is the wicked hearts of men that prevent us from accepting what He says. In the same way we have countless professing Christian religions with virtually every imaginable contradicting doctrine, but I don't believe it is because God's Word is indiscernable, rather that people don't want to accept what it truly says, and try to make it say what they wish it said.
In some cases that is probably true. However, it is very possible for good honest praying believers to look at a passage and come up with radically different intrepretations.

Paul says in 1 Cor 13 that now "we see thru a glass darkly but then face to face," meaning IMO that by divine intent, there are some things that are not clear. We err when we try to clarify them. He will clarify them upon HIS return.

The fact that there are so many conflicting doctrines means they are not using the plain "watertight" basis for developing a doctrine.

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Post #: 9777
RE: Remarriage After Divorce - One Stop Thread - 7/21/2008 8:36:51 PM   
p.progress

 

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NOTICE....EDITED AGAIN, IF YOU WOULD BE PATIENT HEARE, REREAD IT.

Re Posting this, with changes. Please read carefully. Long yes, but from my heart and given some thought at least. I didn't have time to proofread, so may have many errors in it:

Greetings benelchi. I thought it good to try to reclarify some parts of my post that I wrote in answer to yours. I am leaving some things as they are and adding as well - as well as editing somethings I've said. Please accept this from me though it is not so pleasing to the ear at times:

quote:

You say: "3) You respond by telling me that "no saint today NEEDS to KNOW the original languages", and then call me a pharisee because I do???"

"Now you claim that I have called YOU a Pharisee - you PERSONALLY, a Pharisee? And where in my post did I call you this benelchi? In this section:
Look where it - all this learning, got the Pharisees in Christ and the apostles time, or the scholars of the Romish religion down through the centuries; and where all the learning has lead so many 'scholars' in the numerous sects of modern Christendom within Protestism..."


Reread more carefully here and I think that you'll see that what I am saying below is not something I'm making up right now; but was really what I meant and truly my original point.

And that point was this: I was pointing to the fact that it was and has been the so-called 'scholars' throughout the centuries that have claimed things about the scriptures that were and are not supported by a careful reading of the scriptures themselves. Not that others did not miss the meaning of the scriptures or outright corrupt it (though few had the knowledge of the original languages to even read the scriptures if they even had a copy of them to read during the 'middle ages' at least).

But it was and is the so-called 'scholars' that have had and still have the position of power and persuation over the masses, not the other way around. So it behoves us to be alert to this principle and realize also that they are much more accountable in the eyes of God than the 'commoner' or 'peons' are.

The most popular and influential 'scholars' of Christ and the apostles time were mostly within the sect of the 'Pharisees' (and Sadducees); the 'scholars' through out the middle ages, were mostly found in the Roman religion; and then there are all the 'scholars' that rose within the Protestant sects of modern professing Christendom.

I was not in any way, subtlely or otherwise implying that I judge you to be a 'Pharisee'. Whether according to the actual meaning of the word; or the meaning in which it has come to be indicative of - that of an actor, a phony, demanding others to deem their corrupted interpretations of scripture as authoritative and claiming that all are bound to follow it, while not lifting their own finger to follow their interpretation themselves.

And how could I justly have done such a thing, I don't know you personally and cannot observe what you 'do' (your actions) and compare them to the things that you 'say' (evevrything you teach).


Now as to this section:

[color=#990000]"...I care not for any of it. So I am in no way concerned even less impressed by your alleged superior credentials or your too obvious attempts at trying to take on the role of a 'priest' who alone holds the secrets to the scriptures, etc., etc., etc. Discovery of the truth does not require I be so 'learned' as you put out that you are." [/color]

I'll repeat there this: [color=#990000]"I certainly spoke strongly about those who for all their superior learning, yet have ended up more corrupt then those that they thought to be superior to. I even equate you with those who certainly seem to imply (my perception from your posts) that alleged knowledge sets them apart from the unlearned, and that it is implied that to really come to a correct understanding of the meaning of the scriptures requires such learning. I did not call you a Pharisee benelchi. In this you are falsely accusing me of at least this one thing."

"If you are a Pharisee, it is such a thing, which in my understanding and defintion of that word, I would have to be able to observe you in order to determine this one way or the other. And this 'thing' I cannot do, in that I do not know you or your habits to make that judgment call."

"Please be careful in what you say and claim I said. And please, as I have said again and again, let us stick to the issues at hand.




So now I ask you plainly here: What have I said in my presentation - my claims about the scriptures and their meaning in regard to the question of the OP, that are contextual incorrect? I have laid out much to chew on and if in error here or there or altogether so, show me where. Let us 'debate' these things.

Reread what I've said in the posts above - read ALL that I'VE SAID, and show me from the texts I cite and appeal to, the error I am guilty of; my alleged error and "strange doctrine".



I repeat. You say: "To tell you the truth, this kind of argument is so dishonest I don't know how you can present it and keep a straight face. The FUNNY (or SAD) part is that you expect people to accept this kind of reasoning!"

Edited: "Ok now I'm outright dishonest." I have to say here, that I still do stand behind this and say to you: "Shame on you. You don't know me, but you make a judgment that requires evidence that my short (though long) posts don't supply you with to make such an accusation. You've take SOME things I've said, way, way out of context. You could have said it appears that you are this and so or doing this and so - NOT I AM this and so, here 'dishonest.

You (I am forced to think) have so confused yourself with what you 'think' I've said, with what I actually did say. And I believe what I said, was not that difficult to grasp if you'd taken the time to really read and hear my words. And you 'think' that you've made a "righteous judgment" regarding me, accusing me of being dishonest - consciously dishonest...NOT just misguided or ignorant or something of that nature, which an 'elitist' scholar might think and refer to an 'unlearned men' like myself, as. But literally dishonest? Again benelchi I still have to say shame on you.


In addition:
I added a line to you in an above post of mine [pg.391 #9761], where I said these words to you before all:
"Thank you [i.e SealedEternal], Look at what I have had to deal with.
And benelchi I see that I myself at times have spoken wrongly to you, please forgive me this wrong."

I meant this then and still do even now.

I am not interested in entering into a biting and devouring match. When I reread some of my posts to check to see whether I had said anything beyond what my understanding of correcting, instructing, "provoking..." [heb.10:], admonishing, encouraging, reproving, rebuking and even the call to reject another means as scripture defines and illustrates these; I found several statements I made, that upon rereading them, bothered me. I 'felt' I had spoken outside of what I believe is right and appropriate for a son of God (saint, believer, etc.) to speak.

In asking you to forgive me I referring to such statements, but not the many other statements that I have said which you may not accept in the light in which they were given; which was this, to correct you; not merely correct the things that I disagree with you about in 'doctrine', but disagree with you in the manner...the attitude in which they are to be presented in. All this is what my sense is, my impression, my opinion, as I see it.




THE STRUGGLE OF ONE'S SOUL TO ADMIT FAILURE AND ERROR

It is not easy to admit of one's error either in 'doctrine' or attitude. The doctrine part is extremely difficult even when one begins to see that they have been in error in their conclusions (understanding and teaching). There is alot of pressure to not come clean with oneself...especially in 'public'. The investment in time, one's reputation, both as one personally thinks of themselves, and then the reputation that has been 'established' among others. The desire to be respected (esteemed or highly esteemed and honored) by men and to maintain this is a very formibal (?) foe. I see that the desire for the 'praise' of men and the 'fear' of men (one's fear of losing one's reputation among man), combined with the unconscious swallowing and following of the 'doctrines' of men is a "threefold cord" not quickly broken. There is also the pressure within us to be dishonest with the truth, because to utter it and contend for it will - as far as uttering and contending for it among "the many" is concerned - means death....if not literally in one's generation and culture, then is a form of 'social suicide'.


WHAT I BELIEVE ON THE QUESTION OF MARRIAGE - DIVORCE - ADULTERY

I am convinced of the truth that what you and others have been calling 'remarriage' ("the right to remarry") is a very serious corruption of the scriptures teaching on the subjects of marriage, divorce and adultery.

There are only so many passages in the scriptures that address these subjects (issues), but there happens to be a number of them. All of which must be gathered together, read, reread and reread and reread and reread and reread over and over again...which is part of the process of studying them. Studying effectively requires good study skills. And among other things, this requires as well an awareness of one's potential for 'missing things'. Hence the necessity of rereading over and over again all the passages that deal with these subjects. Including being aware of several other problems in determing the truth of a matter: that is, one's potential towards being or 'getting' mislead - even from the 'get go'; which includes the danger of continuing to go down 'rabbit trails'; and getting caught up in myopically focusing on some aspect of study.

One aspect of this is myopically 'zeroing in on' just one aspect of study, or lets say, just one 'piece' of the puzzle within the whole 'puzzle' which makes up the WHOLE PICTURE PUZZLE.

One can be so caught up this way that they become and remain unaware of the fact that they have stopped their "searching the scriptures", and have 'circled' their mental 'wagons around' perhaps only a small portion of "what saith the scriptures" on a matter. One must remain in readiness to pick up on other pieces of the Divine puzzle that they have yet to discover on an 'issue' or subject.

And to 'find everything' scripturre says on a particular subject requires to be able to see how that the complete answer to the 'puzzle' of one subject, is to understand that there is no way to obtain the complete picture unless one sees where other (related) subjects are interwoven with the one in study at the moment.

Being ignorant of these things and potential rabbit trails can cause one to miss and continue to be unaware of further evidence that needs to be gathered on a subject or 'issue'. We need to be ready minded and thus not allow oneself to get 'stuck' in a 'rut' of one's own or anothers making, which you keep you from moving on and digging deeper and expanding your search of the truth, the whole "counsel of God". Which search is not over, until you have virtually exhausted everything that could be found within scripture dealing with the subject(s) at hand.


CONFORMED OR TRANSFORMED?

There is a real danger to us all, of failing to 'escape' what I'll call the 'gravitational force and pull' of the cultural paradigms one has been watered, fed and formed in conformity to - a product of. Think of the people of the 'dark ages' who generation after generation grew up in the dogmas of a very dominate version (perversion) of 'Christianity'. Dogmas that were not only erroneous, but were silly, foolish, dangerous and damning as well, when observed from the vantage point of better knowledge.

I even think of poor George Washington, who though he had a copy of the scriptures by his bedside, died not of a cold; but of the 'medical' practice of blood-letting. Yet the scriptures say that the life of the flesh is in the blood. I am pretty sure had I lived back then as well, that I probably wouldn't have connected the phrase "the life of the flesh is in the blood", to how literal God meant that to be taken, if for no other reason then I would have been blinded by my tendency to 'go along' with those things that were taught as fact, in the culture of that time.



IT'S EASIER TO JUST GO ALONG AND BELIEVE WHAT EVERYONE WANTS TO BELIEVE IN SO


I do not want to believe, what I believe, for the sake of trying to be more 'piest' or 'holier' than others. To vainly gloat that 'my way', is stricter and thus somehow purer and truer, in a world where the majority of professing Christians appear to have let loose all restraints and have a form of godliness, but denies the true power of grace that provides the saint to "both will and to do" of God's "good pleasure".


A BRIEF GLIMPSE OF THE PERSONAL GRIEF, LONELINESS & TRIALS
OF ONE WHO KNOWS WHEREOF HE SPEAKS

My own personal life groans in some areas against this teaching I hold, because of the personal circumstances I have been forced to live with as a result of other grievous factors, arising from our present culture's and generation's ignorances and disobedience to the teaching of the God.

God who made man and ordained how they are to conduct themselves in this world and between themselves, has in his higher will (as I might refer to it) permitted circumstances and individuals to conspire to defraud me of my wife and family. You would I hope be so shocked and heartbroken to hear the ungodly and unrighteous cruelities to which I been subjected to - and that at the hands of professing 'born again' believers, and so-called grace filled conservative groups. That is altogether another story that is neither permitted nor needed to give any details of here in this forum.

I briefly bring this up, so that you might understand, that I am not eager from an emotional - and let me be somewhat frank here - from a physical physiological standpoint, to accept or teach what I teach about all this.

The declaration of God he announced in the unspoiled earth at the beginning that, "It is not good that man should be alone" is a very powerful point, filled with poignant truths I dare say we have yet to plumb the depths of. This declaration remains true, as I can attest to it; in that I live with the very real and exceedingly personal pain of living in the vacuum left by her departure.

But even though my 'help' mate deserted me (so you might know, she's a professing - a seriously professing 'godly' Christian); I know that I am not free to write her off, and then "marry another".

It hurts beyond belief, and has been literally maddening at times, less so now, to have had to experience such a thing. But that is life in this world, and I am not exempt from suffering. I believe that I can marry, but not another, I can 'remarry' my wife if or when she comes to her self and sees the error of her ways. If she "marrys another", then "she shall be called a adulterous" - not by me, but by God himself. If I write her off TO "marry another" then I as well would be rightly referred to (called) by God...condemned as "marrying another". How can I 'repent' of this AFTERWARDS and yet continue in that adultery? There is no way to do so, only in the theater of the mind - a vainly puffed up and reprobate mind.

I have listed as others have, the many or at least more than sufficient passages found in the scriptures that point to a conclusion that no doubt the flesh of men and women can not and DO NOT accept but cast behind their backs...water them down with the mumbo-jumbo incantations that are conjured up from several more vague or less clear portions of scripture, found in some passages regarding these subjects.

I am neither a Hebrew or Greek scholar to be sure; but neither am I a fool, nor so inept in the art of interpretation that I cannot decifer when someone is fabricating an explanation out of thin air (their own imagination). If the scriptures do not explain themselves on a matter; then I would be truly be "simple" [rms.16:17-18], ignorant and "unlearned" - a FOOL - to blindly accept, 'swallow' and 'follow' the verbal fabrications that some so-called teacher, preacher, scholar or popular leader put out as 'What God is saying in this passage'. A fabrication, meaning: something claimed as true, yet not only does the alleged 'proof-text' being cited NOT contain the meanings and/or explanations being promoted as 'true' by some 'teacher'; but there are no other passages that contain the explanations being claimed as 'so' (true/fact) by such 'teachers'.



CONJURED UP FROM THE LEAST CLEAR EXPRESSIONS FOUND IN THE TEXT

The passages that are used to claim that God allows the adulterer (-ous) to continue in their adultery are (in my opinion) conjured up in the minds of those that promote them, as they imagine them to be somehow contained in phrases...vague, that is the least clear phrases found in Mat.5:27-28, 30-31, Mat.19:9-10, 1-12; 1Cor.7:11a, 1Cor.7:28-29a, 1Cor.7:8a-9, Mal.2:16a,13-16, Jer.3:1,1-14,20 and Deut.24...primarily.

All of these passages - phrases (words) contained therein, are easy prey to be 'wrested' out of their contextual joints, by not only the "unlearned", but by those that "lie in wait to deceive" and by the kind of 'teachers' Paul referred to as "proud knowing nothing". And when these two latter types of individuals use this sort of hocus-pocus, they employ language that Peter and Jude label as "great swelling words of vanity", Paul calls it "good words and fair speeches" - all of which is aimed at persuading the "simple", the "unlearned and unstable" and those who are vulnerable to being "allured by the flesh" by men who use this kind of persuative speech, to swallow their claims.

The unsupportive claims of men 'based' on the less clear and less plain phrases in such passages, do not outweigh or dullify what is spoken of to the contrary, in the CLEAR, the PLAIN portions of these passages - passages that are found to REPEAT that God forbids adultery and no where explains that he has santified the deeds of adultery and now permits them. The sriptures that speak to this subject do not support the notion that God permits what he clearly forbids in these passages. It is the desire to enjoy the pleasures that a honorable marriage provide, that drives men to 'see' in God's word this kind of "promise" of "liberty"...a "liberty" that Peter warns will be handed out like candy for the flesh peddlers that he warned would come into the Ekklesia of God, via false teachers.


If I am wrong, then I am ready to be shone from the scriptures themselves, and ready to be directed to read where it says that God promises or allows for that which other passages 'seem to' say otherwise, and forbid. If I am wrong, I am not going to be held responsible for promoting adultery - potential or otherwise. I will not be able to be held responsible either for teaching: "forbidding to marry". God said, Paul said and taught that marriage is good. But Paul and Christ also taught that some marriages are not permitted: The woman who leaves her husband; the virgin who's father does not wish to "give her" in 'marriage' but "keep" her from marrying [1co.7.36-38]; the man that puts away his wife; the wife that puts away her husband; the wife who was put away BY her husband... and others.

It may be that a wife may not return to her husband or a husband take back his wife in numerous instances, but that does not mean that the adulterer or adulterous is then permitted to remain in the adulterous relationship they've gotten themselves entangled in on this account or any other account. A legal divorce from an unlawful relationship IS NOT what Malachi was forbidding, condemning or warning about when he says that "the Lord God hatheth the putting away". He was speaking about a man putting away his wife, the wife of his "youth" and "convenant" - not a so-called 'wife' that was 'taken' unlawfully and against God's express will.

Use this passage in Malachi as its contextual application speaks to, and then you'll see that it fits perfectly with my stance on this whole question about whether it is right or not to "marry another", or wrong or right to put away one's adulteries that has been legally recorded in ungodly civil courts as a so-called 'marriage'.


I'll leave this there as well, but understand I say this graciously though strongly here:
"So stop writing to me. Rebuke me twice and then reject me benelchi; that's what your suppose to do with a "heretick" you think or have claimed that I am.

"For God's sake, care about me, do as I asked, show me my error and you'll find me amiable to that. In gentleness instruct me. I'm very serious if you think that I am so out there. Just start correcting the substance of my claims, and stop attacking me or focusing on secondary peripheral things you want to chide me or others for. Take me serious here and do that.



P.Progress

< Message edited by p.progress -- 7/23/2008 6:33:50 PM >
Post #: 9778
RE: Remarriage After Divorce - One Stop Thread - 7/21/2008 10:02:55 PM   
SealedEternal


Posts: 1065
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From: Milwaukee, WI
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quote:

ORIGINAL: DaveW

quote:

ORIGINAL: SealedEternal

So your claim is that God made a Law that was impossible to be understood, and then judged people who didn't follow it properly?


I have said nothing about God judging people who do not clearly understand His word. Indeed, IMO, He does not do that. God is not a tyrant or unfeeling computer that indiscriminately metes out puninshment. He is a loving and fair father. Hebrews speaks of his being touched by our weakness and empathising in our temptation. David wrote in the Psalms that He "...is mindful of our frame that we are but dust."


My point was that Old Covenant people were judged based on the Law, so I don't believe He would give them a Law they couldn't understand. In fact, when the Pharisees asked Jesus about this particular Law in Matthew 19, He responded saying that whoever had divorced, apart from the cause that Deuteronomy 24 specified, which He said in Greek was "porneia", was committing adultery if they remarried. Therefore it seems that Jesus was pretty harshly judging them and condemning them for not properly teaching and exercising this Law. Jesus expected that they were fully capable of understanding it properly, but as was common with the Pharisees they willfully twisted it and misused it to divorce for all sorts of causes which Deuteronomy 24 was never intended. In doing so Jesus informed them that their divorces were not recognized by God and thus their remarriages were not really marriages at all, but were extramarital adulterous affairs.

That was my point with professing Christians as well. I don't believe that God is the creator of this doctrinal confusion of countless contradictory professing Christian religions, because He was not clear in His word. Just as with the Pharisees, most people by nature heap onto themselves teachers in accordance with their own desires rather than turning to God as Lord and sincerely seeking His will. The fact that the Old Covenant religious leaders debated endlessly about this passage and seemingly couldn't come to a consensus, is not proof that the verse itself isn't clear and understandable, but rather proves how intellectually dishonest that mankind can be about God's truths. Again, Jesus expected that they could understand it just fine, so He didn't believe His Word was unclear or indiscernable.

SealedEternal

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Post #: 9779
RE: Remarriage After Divorce - One Stop Thread - 7/21/2008 10:25:59 PM   
keepingfaith

 

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quote:

From Origin:

"The Saviour then commanded, 'What God hath joined together, let not man put asunder,' but man wishes to put asunder what God hath joined together, when, "falling away from the sound faith, giving heed to seducing spirits and doctrines of demons, through the hypocrisy of men that speak lies, branded in their own conscience as with a hot iron, forbidding," not only to commit fornication, but 'to marry,' he dissolves even those who had been before joined together by the providence of God."

From Augustine when he addressed the Duet. 24:1-4 passage:

"No good or prudent man would write the bill unless it were a case of such obstinate aversion as to make reconciliation impossible."

Tertullian did accepted remarriage if the dissolution of the first had occurred prior to one's conversion.

Again the early church DID NOT ACCEPT your strange doctrines, nor has most of the church for the entire history of its existence!


You believe this constitutes "the early church" teachings? Your own interpretation of what a couple of people said? I am beside myself at the lengths you have gone to mislead people about the early church.

You can keep calling it my doctrine and you can keep calling it "strange" a gazillion times, but that won't change the words of Jesus Christ........Luke 16:18, and that won't change the fact that the early church interepreted it the same way I do- marriage being a permanent covenant broken by death and any other unions post-divorce were considered adulterous affairs.

What the early church would consider "strange" is counsel that repentance for someone who is in an adulterous affair (which is what they called post-divorce remarriage) does not require forsaking the relationship. They would find it strange that someone can be in a sexually immoral relationship and continue living with someone else's spouse, and also be assured they are "in Christ." They would find it strange that someone would say those in unrepentant adultery will inherit Heaven, when there are warnings throughout scripture saying they will not.

I'm sorry, Benelchi- it is God's Word that you are calling strange. Those are HIS words.......not mine or anyone else's.

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Post #: 9780
RE: Remarriage After Divorce - One Stop Thread - 7/21/2008 10:30:37 PM   
keepingfaith

 

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quote:

Again, Jesus expected that they could understand it just fine, so He didn't believe His Word was unclear or indiscernable.


That is what I get from His famous words... "Have you not read?" (even the first chapter?)

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Post #: 9781
RE: Remarriage After Divorce - One Stop Thread - 7/21/2008 10:40:18 PM   
keepingfaith

 

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quote:

The early church permitted remarriage for those who divorced prior to conversion, and I agree.



Please show me where scripture says, "a man shall leave his father and mother, be converted and cleave to his wife..."

Please show me where scripture says "must remain unmarried or be reconciled" unless you were lucky enough to get the wildcard and your marriage doesn't count since you slipped by before you became a Christian.

Please show me where scripture says you must make a new set of vows after you become a Christian, so you will no longer be living in sin with the person you thought you married.

The words of Jesus Christ refute this because HE says "EVERYONE who divorces and marries another commits adultery." That means EVERYONE which includes those who abandon their spouse, and those who divorced prior to conversion...

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Post #: 9782
RE: Remarriage After Divorce - One Stop Thread - 7/22/2008 1:12:38 AM   
benelchi


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quote:

ORIGINAL: keepingfaith

quote:

From Origin:

"The Saviour then commanded, 'What God hath joined together, let not man put asunder,' but man wishes to put asunder what God hath joined together, when, "falling away from the sound faith, giving heed to seducing spirits and doctrines of demons, through the hypocrisy of men that speak lies, branded in their own conscience as with a hot iron, forbidding," not only to commit fornication, but 'to marry,' he dissolves even those who had been before joined together by the providence of God."

From Augustine when he addressed the Duet. 24:1-4 passage:

"No good or prudent man would write the bill unless it were a case of such obstinate aversion as to make reconciliation impossible."

Tertullian did accepted remarriage if the dissolution of the first had occurred prior to one's conversion.

Again the early church DID NOT ACCEPT your strange doctrines, nor has most of the church for the entire history of its existence!


You believe this constitutes "the early church" teachings? Your own interpretation of what a couple of people said? I am beside myself at the lengths you have gone to mislead people about the early church.



You say these quotes are not the early church teachings, but only "what a couple of people said?". Do you realize that Origin and Augustine are some of the most prominent and influential leaders of the early church? If you expect people to believe the their opinion was unimportant and did not reflect the opinion of the early church, then it is clearly you who are trying to mislead people about what the early church believed!
Post #: 9783
RE: Remarriage After Divorce - One Stop Thread - 7/23/2008 7:49:55 PM   
p.progress

 

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quote:

ORIGINAL: SealedEternal

quote:

ORIGINAL: DaveW

quote:

ORIGINAL: SealedEternal

So your claim is that God made a Law that was impossible to be understood, and then judged people who didn't follow it properly?


I have said nothing about God judging people who do not clearly understand His word. Indeed, IMO, He does not do that. God is not a tyrant or unfeeling computer that indiscriminately metes out puninshment. He is a loving and fair father. Hebrews speaks of his being touched by our weakness and empathising in our temptation. David wrote in the Psalms that He "...is mindful of our frame that we are but dust."


My point was that Old Covenant people were judged based on the Law, so I don't believe He would give them a Law they couldn't understand. In fact, when the Pharisees asked Jesus about this particular Law in Matthew 19, He responded saying that whoever had divorced, apart from the cause that Deuteronomy 24 specified, which He said in Greek was "porneia", was committing adultery if they remarried. Therefore it seems that Jesus was pretty harshly judging them and condemning them for not properly teaching and exercising this Law. Jesus expected that they were fully capable of understanding it properly, but as was common with the Pharisees they willfully twisted it and misused it to divorce for all sorts of causes which Deuteronomy 24 was never intended. In doing so Jesus informed them that their divorces were not recognized by God and thus their remarriages were not really marriages at all, but were extramarital adulterous affairs.

That was my point with professing Christians as well. I don't believe that God is the creator of this doctrinal confusion of countless contradictory professing Christian religions, because He was not clear in His word. Just as with the Pharisees, most people by nature heap onto themselves teachers in accordance with their own desires rather than turning to God as Lord and sincerely seeking His will. The fact that the Old Covenant religious leaders debated endlessly about this passage and seemingly couldn't come to a consensus, is not proof that the verse itself isn't clear and understandable, but rather proves how intellectually dishonest that mankind can be about God's truths. Again, Jesus expected that they could understand it just fine, so He didn't believe His Word was unclear or indiscernable.

SealedEternal




Greetings SealedEternal. I have some questions and/or comments - I don't know which as yet - regarding what you state here in this protion. You said:

"In fact, when the Pharisees asked Jesus about this particular Law in Matthew 19, He responded saying that whoever had divorced, apart from the cause that Deuteronomy 24 specified, which He said in Greek was "porneia", was committing adultery if they remarried."

In the section where you say, "...apart from the cause that Deuteronomy 24 specified, which He said in Greek was 'porneia'...". Perhaps I am not as well versed, or have as much light on this portion of Deut.24:1-as you and others have, so I am coming from another, perhaps ignorant posisiton; but I don't see that Christ was instructing the Pharisees or us today, that the words, which benelchi has referred to as the 'construct' ''ervat devar'', or KJV translates as "some uncleanness" was for "some pornia" or "some whoredom", or "some harlotry". Perhaps he did equate "some uncleanness" with "porneia", I just have not been able to see this as the case. The only thing that I know at present that might lean some weight to that argument in my present opinion is to take what God did in the case of his whorish and adulterous wife Israel (spoken of in Jer.3:1,8); and in the case where Joseph was contemplating whether to put away Mary or not for her assumed whordom. The law is not ambiguous about what it prescribed as the penalty and punishment to meted out for a betrothed maiden (virgin), who had "played the whore in her father's house" - it was to be death; NO other options are mentioned in that text or in any other text elsewhere in the Law given from Mt.Sinai says: "...save for..." or "...except for the casue of fornication", not that I am aware of any way.

Yet here we read of Joseph who we are told as well, was a righteous man; that he was not willing to have Mary suffer the extreme penalty of this Law, and looked to save her from the death penalty - not by going ahead and taking her to wife, but by putting her away. But by what law or provision in the Law? Where does it provide this kind of an option for the transgressor? I don't know. And I do not see that Deut.24:1-4 was speaking of "saving for...except for fornication", but for "some uncleanness", falling short of the sins of unlawful sexual intercourse.

But let us say for now that is precisely the meaning of "some uncleanness" found in the Deut. passage; here we have two statements that appear to be in conflict with one another: That of the statement by Christ that the provision in the precept of Deut. 24 was for the "hard-hearted". And that of the scriptures testimony that Joseph was a righteous man: "Then Joseph her husband, being a just [man], and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily." [mat.1.19]

How could Joseph put her away - allegedly invoking Deut 24:1 - without seemingly being worthy then of being considered a hard hearted man? Can the just minded man, that has sufficient compassion for his betrothed, yet *unfaithful whorish wife (to be), be rightly called 'hard hearted', if he spares her and her family the disgrace of being made a public spectacle, and save her the punishment of death for *her unfaithfulness (and of "playing the whore in her father's house")???
[* Supposed unfaithfulness]

Could Joseph spare her the punishment, even if he wanted to? Was there any provision in the Law for this? Is Deut.24 that provision - if Chrsit said, "Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so"..."For the hardness of your heart he wrote you this precept."? I don't think so, but I don't have much light on that question. It is clear that Joseph thought he had a way out for Mary; or was hoping to be able to use some means to put her away. And he was just or righteous, and certainly kind.

I just don't see Deut. for fornication or adultery - the Pharisees were sure quick to stone the adulterous woman. Out of Time. Just food for thought, and desirous to hear from you.
Post #: 9784
RE: Remarriage After Divorce - One Stop Thread - 7/23/2008 11:03:57 PM   
SealedEternal


Posts: 1065
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From: Milwaukee, WI
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quote:

ORIGINAL: p.progress

Greetings SealedEternal. I have some questions and/or comments - I don't know which as yet - regarding what you state here in this protion. You said:

"In fact, when the Pharisees asked Jesus about this particular Law in Matthew 19, He responded saying that whoever had divorced, apart from the cause that Deuteronomy 24 specified, which He said in Greek was "porneia", was committing adultery if they remarried."

In the section where you say, "...apart from the cause that Deuteronomy 24 specified, which He said in Greek was 'porneia'...". Perhaps I am not as well versed, or have as much light on this portion of Deut.24:1-as you and others have, so I am coming from another, perhaps ignorant posisiton; but I don't see that Christ was instructing the Pharisees or us today, that the words, which benelchi has referred to as the 'construct' ''ervat devar'', or KJV translates as "some uncleanness" was for "some pornia" or "some whoredom", or "some harlotry". Perhaps he did equate "some uncleanness" with "porneia", I just have not been able to see this as the case.


You have to read the whole passage carefully. First the Pharisees ask Him if it is lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any reason at all:

Matthew 19:3-6 Some Pharisees came to Jesus, testing Him and asking, "Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any reason at all?" And He answered and said, "Have you not read that He who created them from the beginning MADE THEM MALE AND FEMALE, and said, 'FOR THIS REASON A MAN SHALL LEAVE HIS FATHER AND MOTHER AND BE JOINED TO HIS WIFE, AND THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH'? "So they are no longer two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let no man separate."

Jesus responded taking them back to Genesis and giving them an unequivocal NO! So the Pharisees thinking they have Him in a contradiction ask Him a different question about the Old Covenant Law:

Matthew 19:7-9 They *said to Him, "Why then did Moses command to GIVE HER A CERTIFICATE OF DIVORCE AND SEND her AWAY?" He *said to them, "Because of your hardness of heart Moses permitted you to divorce your wives; but from the beginning it has not been this way. "And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality (porneia), and marries another woman commits adultery."

He responds confirming there was a provision in the Old Covenant Law that was not given by God in Genesis, but was added to the Laws of Moses due to the hard hearts of the Jews. He then adds however that anyone who divorced apart from the cause of "porneia" (immorality/fornication) was committing adultery. This was a condemnation against them since we know from history that the Pharisees had several different "interpretations" of this Law that were much more broad than finding her sexually unclean when he married her. Thus He was condemning the Pharisees, and implying that they should have been stoned to death as adulterers for their abuse of this Law.

quote:

The only thing that I know at present that might lean some weight to that argument in my present opinion is to take what God did in the case of his whorish and adulterous wife Israel (spoken of in Jer.3:1,8); and in the case where Joseph was contemplating whether to put away Mary or not for her assumed whordom. The law is not ambiguous about what it prescribed as the penalty and punishment to meted out for a betrothed maiden (virgin), who had "played the whore in her father's house" - it was to be death; NO other options are mentioned in that text or in any other text elsewhere in the Law given from Mt.Sinai says: "...save for..." or "...except for the casue of fornication", not that I am aware of any way.


You are referring to Deuteronomy 22:

Deuteronomy 22:13-21 "If any man takes a wife and goes in to her and then turns against her, and charges her with shameful deeds and publicly defames her, and says, 'I took this woman, but when I came near her, I did not find her a virgin,' then the girl's father and her mother shall take and bring out the evidence of the girl's virginity to the elders of the city at the gate. "The girl's father shall say to the elders, 'I gave my daughter to this man for a wife, but he turned against her; and behold, he has charged her with shameful deeds, saying, "I did not find your daughter a virgin." But this is the evidence of my daughter's virginity.' And they shall spread the garment before the elders of the city. "So the elders of that city shall take the man and chastise him, and they shall fine him a hundred shekels of silver and give it to the girl's father, because he publicly defamed a virgin of Israel. And she shall remain his wife; he cannot divorce her all his days. "But if this charge is true, that the girl was not found a virgin, then they shall bring out the girl to the doorway of her father's house, and the men of her city shall stone her to death because she has committed an act of folly in Israel by playing the harlot in her father's house; thus you shall purge the evil from among you.

You are correct that this Law established the regulations for a woman who was found sexually unclean when a man married her. Verse 24 then describes this situation and adds an additional regulation. If you look at them side by side they are describing the same situation:

Deuteronomy 22:13 "If any man takes a wife and goes in to her..."
Deuteronomy 24:1 "When a man takes a wife and marries her..."

Deuteronomy 22:13-14 "and then turns against her, and charges her with shameful deeds and publicly defames her, and says, 'I took this woman, but when I came near her, I did not find her a virgin"
Deuteronomy 24:1 "and it happens that she finds no favor in his eyes because he has found some indecency in her"

Deuteronomy 24 has to be adding a provision to an existing Law, because it is written as though the Law is already known. It quickly reiterates the cause of Deuteronomy 22, but then adds another regulation calling for a divorce rather than a stoning, but says that the man cannot change his mind if she marries again.

Actually if you read the original Law in chapter 22 it also regarded the stoning as a type of divorce, rather than simply giving a certificate, but said that if she was found innocent of premarital fornication, that he could not divorce her all his days:

Deuteronomy 22:18-19 "So the elders of that city shall take the man and chastise him, and they shall fine him a hundred shekels of silver and give it to the girl's father, because he publicly defamed a virgin of Israel. And she shall remain his wife; he cannot divorce her all his days.

The Law stated that a woman who was not guilty of premarital fornication could not be divorced for any other cause, but that he had to remain married to her all his days.

quote:

Yet here we read of Joseph who we are told as well, was a righteous man; that he was not willing to have Mary suffer the extreme penalty of this Law, and looked to save her from the death penalty - not by going ahead and taking her to wife, but by putting her away. But by what law or provision in the Law? Where does it provide this kind of an option for the transgressor? I don't know. And I do not see that Deut.24:1-4 was speaking of "saving for...except for fornication", but for "some uncleanness", falling short of the sins of unlawful sexual intercourse.


Joseph found her guilty of premarital fornication, and being a righteous man decided to implement Deuteronomy 24:

Matthew 1:18-19 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was as follows: when His mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph, before they came together she was found to be with child by the Holy Spirit. And Joseph her husband, being a righteous man and not wanting to disgrace her, planned to send her away secretly.

Before Joseph took his wife and married her, he found some indecency in her, or in other words found that she had committed premarital fornication. This is also what the Pharisees accused Jesus' mother of on another occasion:

John 8:41 "You are doing the deeds of your father." They said to Him, "We were not born of fornication (porneia); we have one Father: God."

In this text, the Pharisees give a bit of a back handed sneer at Jesus, claiming that the was born of "porneia", which is the same word Jesus said was the cause for legal divorce in the Old Covenant Law to the Pharisees. Therefore when Jesus said that "whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality (porneia), and marries another woman commits adultery, we see that the term was the proper expression for premarital fornication, although admittedly I believe the term can be used more broadly in different contexts.


quote:

But let us say for now that is precisely the meaning of "some uncleanness" found in the Deut. passage; here we have two statements that appear to be in conflict with one another: That of the statement by Christ that the provision in the precept of Deut. 24 was for the "hard-hearted". And that of the scriptures testimony that Joseph was a righteous man: "Then Joseph her husband, being a just [man], and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily." [mat.1.19]


It was given to the Jews due to their hard heartedness, but it was the Law nevertheless, so it is not unrighteous to follow God's Laws regardless of why He gave it.

quote:

How could Joseph put her away - allegedly invoking Deut 24:1 - without seemingly being worthy then of being considered a hard hearted man? Can the just minded man, that has sufficient compassion for his betrothed, yet *unfaithful whorish wife (to be), be rightly called 'hard hearted', if he spares her and her family the disgrace of being made a public spectacle, and save her the punishment of death for *her unfaithfulness (and of "playing the whore in her father's house")???
[* Supposed unfaithfulness]


If the Law didn't permit him to divorce for this cause then he would have been breaking the Law and rewriting it to fit his own opinions.

By definition all of the Old Covenant people were hard hearted because Christ hadn't begun writing His Law upon peoples heart with His Spirit:

Hebrews 10:14-17 For by one offering He has perfected for all time those who are sanctified. And the Holy Spirit also testifies to us; for after saying, "THIS IS THE COVENANT THAT I WILL MAKE WITH THEM AFTER THOSE DAYS, SAYS THE LORD: I WILL PUT MY LAWS UPON THEIR HEART, AND ON THEIR MIND I WILL WRITE THEM," He then says, "AND THEIR SINS AND THEIR LAWLESS DEEDS I WILL REMEMBER NO MORE."

Romans 2:29 But he is a Jew who is one inwardly; and circumcision is that which is of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the letter; and his praise is not from men, but from God.

2 Corinthians 3:2-18 You are our letter, written in our hearts, known and read by all men; being manifested that you are a letter of Christ, cared for by us, written not with ink but with the Spirit of the living God, not on tablets of stone but on tablets of human hearts. Such confidence we have through Christ toward God. Not that we are adequate in ourselves to consider anything as coming from ourselves, but our adequacy is from God, who also made us adequate as servants of a new covenant, not of the letter but of the Spirit; for the letter kills, but the Spirit gives life. But if the ministry of death, in letters engraved on stones, came with glory, so that the sons of Israel could not look intently at the face of Moses because of the glory of his face, fading as it was, how will the ministry of the Spirit fail to be even more with glory? For if the ministry of condemnation has glory, much more does the ministry of righteousness abound in glory. For indeed what had glory, in this case has no glory because of the glory that surpasses it. For if that which fades away was with glory, much more that which remains is in glory. Therefore having such a hope, we use great boldness in our speech, and are not like Moses, who used to put a veil over his face so that the sons of Israel would not look intently at the end of what was fading away. But their minds were hardened; for until this very day at the reading of the old covenant the same veil remains unlifted, because it is removed in Christ. But to this day whenever Moses is read, a veil lies over their heart; but whenever a person turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away. Now the Lord is the Spirit, and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is liberty. But we all, with unveiled face, beholding as in a mirror the glory of the Lord, are being transformed into the same image from glory to glory, just as from the Lord, the Spirit.

The Old Covenant was written on stone to stony hearted people who were always resisting God's Spirit, according to Stephen in Acts. It is in the New Covenant that His Laws are written on our hearts and minds by His Spirit, but Joseph at that time was not a born again Christian.

SealedEternal

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Post #: 9785
RE: Remarriage After Divorce - One Stop Thread - 7/24/2008 6:53:31 PM   
p.progress

 

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Joined: 12/23/2006
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quote:

ORIGINAL: SealedEternal

quote:

ORIGINAL: p.progress

Greetings SealedEternal. I have some questions and/or comments - I don't know which as yet - regarding what you state here in this protion. You said:...



You are referring to Deuteronomy 22:

Deuteronomy 22:13-21 "If any man ...

The Old Covenant was written on stone to...

SealedEternal


Thank you SE for your response. I have copied your response, and will take it home (from library) and go over it. I'll let you know what I think and/or ask you some other questions I'm sure, to clarify the things I think I need to be elaborated on or explained. If you have anymore thoughts and details to add, please feel free to post an addenum. Thank you again, P.Progress (Scot).
Post #: 9786
RE: Remarriage After Divorce - One Stop Thread - 7/25/2008 5:32:29 PM   
huckfinn327


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Greetings from Huckfinn,

The attached document was written by Leslie McFall in Feb. 2008 ... He contends that the "exception clause" in Matt. 19:9 of Erasmus' edition of Greek NT is a corruption of the true text ... a corruption that was specifically introduced by Erasmus. This new paper has a place in this debate.

http://www.btinternet.com/~lmf12/DivorceMcFALLview.pdf

Huckfinn

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NO-REMARRIAGE-THIS-SIDE-OF-DEATH .... JESUS TAUGHT CREATION MARRIAGE

www.jesusremarriagekeller.com
Post #: 9787
RE: Remarriage After Divorce - One Stop Thread - 7/25/2008 6:23:25 PM   
benelchi


Posts: 2384
Joined: 9/14/2007
From: California
Status: online
quote:

ORIGINAL: huckfinn327

Greetings from Huckfinn,

The attached document was written by Leslie McFall in Feb. 2008 ... He contends that the "exception clause" in Matt. 19:9 of Erasmus' edition of Greek NT is a corruption of the true text ... a corruption that was specifically introduced by Erasmus. This new paper has a place in this debate.

http://www.btinternet.com/~lmf12/DivorceMcFALLview.pdf

Huckfinn



The argument presented by this author about the use of 'ei' in 'ei me epi porneia' is a little bit deceptive because the text used by most modern translators simply reads 'me epi porneia' i.e. 'not based on porneia'; there is no requirement for the insertion of 'ei' in order to understand the exception. Additionally, as the author pointed out Mt. 5:32 reads 'parektos logou pornei' and means the same thing.
Post #: 9788
RE: Remarriage After Divorce - One Stop Thread - 7/25/2008 11:14:45 PM   
keepingfaith

 

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quote:

Do you realize that Origin and Augustine are some of the most prominent and influential leaders of the early church? If you expect people to believe the their opinion was unimportant and did not reflect the opinion of the early church, then it is clearly you who are trying to mislead people about what the early church believed!


source:
http://www.trueconnection.org/BibleStudies/DivorceRemarriage_Josiahs.html

Origen as a universalist and heretic said, “We think that the goodness of God, through the mediation of Christ, will bring all creatures to one and the same end, (De princip., I, vi, 1-3). He was yet further a heretic in so many places that it is impossible to number. One such example can be seen even in his commentaries on Matthew (book 14, # 16) where he directly contradicts what Jesus believed about the story of Adam and Eve's creation. Many of his thoughts are sprinkled with this type of defilement. It is an amazement to me that any church leader today would quote him for anything. But they still do every now and then. In his universalist belief he sometimes questioned himself. However, in the midst of all of his heresies, he knew that marriage was indissoluble.

If we are going to be persuaded by Church history, then let us know that Origen is representative of those who erred in history, not as one who “faithfully passed along the traditions of the Apostles,” (as others did). So Origen is not a good example to start with when it comes to representing the “early church.” This is clear for anyone who has understanding and reads his writings. Lastly, let us keep in mind that Origen was not one of the earliest church leaders relative to the rest. He lived from 185 to 255 AD.

Augustine however was another major mile-stone in spiritual corruption, and the first major mile-stone in this issue. He erred by suggesting that an original marriage may be found invalid due to lack of baptism and official church recognition. He was the first one to propose that marriages were valid or invalid solely base on the authority of the church and he expressed this idea by defining marriage as a “sacrament,” (just as communion, baptism, and so on). In this thought, if a marriage were not established by the church, or if both spouses were not baptized, (or “sprinkled”) then their union was not considered a “saved” marriage, and could so be officially “annulled” because it was therefore outside of the church’s approval and validation.

Augustine could be called one of, if not the most, influential church leader in catholic doctrine, and because of this, his ideas have stuck throughout the centuries.

Benelchi, it is interesting that you reject the Catholic Church teachings and claim the reason no one knew what the Bible said for all those years was because they just believed the Pope, yet you accept this particular doctrine from RC that happens to be extrabiblical? But not their doctrine that marriage is permanent (as long as it's valid). Since baptism is not proof of salvation- especially when done as a baby... one can still grow up and be an atheist- how exactly does one prove which marriages are valid?


What about Tertullian who you claim believed remarriage was allowed if divorced prior to conversion, and your claim that some in the early church said no remarriage even after death? Here's more on that...


Remarriage after separation was considered punishable adultery or bigamy—sometimes more so for women than men. Even remarriage after the death of one's spouse was viewed by the church fathers and councils with suspicion, as "disguised adultery," in the words of Athenagoras. [CT Classic: Divorce and Remarriage from Augustine to Zwingli, Christianity Today, Week of August 28.

When they reference “church fathers” as not permitting remarriage after the death of a spouse, this is not quite accurate. Actually, it was a deeply notorious “spiritual” movement that started in the latter part of the second century called Montanism, and not the actual “church fathers.”

Montanism was started by a guy named Montanus, and was later lead by two alleged prophetesses, “Priscilla” and “Maximilla,” who referred to their movement as The New Prophecy. Among many other problems, they denied the gift of the Holy Spirit, the Gospel of John, and many other serious elements of real Christianity.

Montanism had an established error which they did in reference to 1Tim 3:2, 12; and 5:9 about Deacons and widows being “one-spouse” people:

From the beginning, the church understood the verses above to apply to any second marriage– including a remarriage after one’s spouse had died. If a person had been remarried for any reason, that person was disqualified from being ordained into the clergy or being enrolled as a widow. The Montanists, however, went a step farther, prohibiting even laypersons from remarrying after the death of their spouses.
(Under “TWICE-MARRIED” from “A Dictionary of Early Christian Beliefs” by David W. Bercot)

This however, did not reflect the real church during their time.

Tertullian, the Misquoted Heretic

But as far as influential Montanists, I think everyone would agree that the early church leader named Tertullian was the most eminent. Throughout all of this his error flows throughout his writings, even before he joined the heretical Montanists.

But Tertullian is somewhat important to this teaching because in A Dictionary of Early Christian Beliefs Tertullian is quoted completely out of context to make it appear that he taught against the universal teaching of the perminancy of marriage, when in fact, he fully supported it along with every other Church leader, except that he taught that widows should not remarry. In the past, I have considered A Dictionary of Early Christian Beliefs to be generally helpful and accurate, but in this case, the editor David W. Bercot is notably misleading by quoting Tertullian out of context. Tertullian's quote appears as such in this dictionary:

“If you are bound to a wife, do not seek to be loosed. If you have been loosed from a wife, do not seek a wife. But even if you have taken a wife, you have not sinned.” [1 Cor 7:27, 28]. He says that because to a man who had been loosed from a wife prior to his believing [in Christ], his wife will not be counted as a “second wife.” Because she is his first wife after his believing. Tertullian (c. 217, W), 4.68.

Mr. Bercot lists this as one of the main quotes from the early Church on Divorce and Remarriage when there are so many other clear and direct quotes from the early Church. But worse than this, he completely fails to include what this quote is actually saying by excluding it's context!

...the Psychics will have it the apostle approved, or else totally failed to think about, when he wrote: “The woman is bound for such length of time as her husband liveth; but if he shall have died, she is free; whom she will let her marry, only in the Lord.”... [Tertullian goes on to mention that Paul did not permit second marriages, and then says] ...that that one passage should have some explanation agreeable with the others, than that an apostle should seem to have taught (principles) mutually diverse. [ie. Paul did not contradict himself] ...of course, as he may have been found by the faith. “Thou hast been bound to a wife, seek not loosing; thou hast been loosed from a wife, seek not a wife.” “But if thou shalt have taken to (thyself) a wife, thou hast not sinned;” because to one who, before believing, had been “loosed from a wife,” she will not be counted a second wife who, subsequently to believing, is the first: for it is from (the time of our) believing that our life itself dates its origin. [If we cease the quote here as Mr. Bercot does, we might think Tertullian is speaking of Divorce and Remarriage.

But Tertullian goes on to clarify what he means.] So, then, in the very same passage in which he definitely rules that “each one ought permanently to remain in that calling in which he shall be called;” adding, “A woman is bound so long as her husband liveth; but if he shall have fallen asleep, she is free: whom she shall wish let her marry, only in the Lord,” he hence also demonstrates that such a woman is to be understood as has withal herself been “found” (by the faith) “loosed from a husband,” similarly as the husband “loosed from a wife” - the “loosing” having taken place through death, of course, not through divorce; inasmuch as to the divorced he would grant no permission to marry, in the teeth of the primary precept. And so “a woman, if she shall have married, will not sin;” because he will not be reckoned a second husband who is, subsequently to her believing, the first, any more (than a wife thus taken will be counted a second wife). And so truly is this the case... for nothing is so much to be guarded as (the care) that no one be found self-contradictory.

Though it is clear that Tertullian taught the exact same message on Divorce and Remarriage as every other early church leader did, (except for the Monastic view on lay-widows), some have taken this quote out of context to wrongly justify themselves. But if they will do so by a heretic named Tertullian, I wish that they would at least realize that he was talking about widows not divorced people. And I wish they would all except his point “for nothing is so much to be guarded as (the care) that no one be found self-contradictory,” since they try to suggest that Paul contradicted himself in first Corinthians seven.

Insteresting, Erasmus was known for being a heretic as well...

< Message edited by keepingfaith -- 7/26/2008 12:00:44 AM >


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"My command is this: Love each other as I have loved